Talk:General Semantics

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    Revision as of 18:59, 15 February 2004 by 65.95.171.32 (talk)
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    Being raised with English as my first and only language, I believe that "to be" can be the same as "equal" and bassically the same as "remains".

    I agree that the distinction of "becomes" is a critical one to make.

    "equals" especially when used in the context of expressing mathematical and scientific laws is not limited to a moment in time. It is universal. (Except, of course when the law is really only an unproven theory thought to be a law due to a healthy mix of hubris and ignorance)

    "remains" is often a distinction that needs not be made. if something already was, and it continues to be, it is not critical to know that historically it was.

    For my understanding, some examples of how "to be" can be used unethically would help to make things more clear for me.